Quality 101 | Quality Assurance Mock Test
Quality 101 Quality Assurance (QA) is a course which is to acquaint the student with the basic concepts, terminology and tools which is used to ensure quality assurance of the product. In this post we will cover these topics such as quality assurance, quality control vs quality assurance, quality assurance vs quality control, what is quality assurance, quality assurance definition, definitions of quality assurance, quality assurance define and so on.
1
___________ guarantees that only one person at a time is in the process of creating a new version for a particular branch.
a. Record Locking
b. Branch locking
c. Object Locking
d. File locking
2
__________ model focuses on supporting management of logical changes to system configurations.
a. Check-in, Check-out
b. Composition
c. Long Transaction
d. Change set
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3
Configuration Management is a technique for
a. Project Plan execution
b. Overall Change Control
c. Scope Planning
d. Risk Quantificatiion
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4
CM Audit is mandatorily performed before release of the software to the customer to ensure :
a. Correct versions of the software is being delivered
b. CI(s) in the current version agrees with all specified requirements
c. Requested and approved changes are implemented
d. All of the above
5
_______ is maintained by the SCM tool and keeps tracks of all the changes to the CI along with relevant information like the person making the changes, time of change, date of change etc
a. Baseline
b. Versions of CI
c. History
d. Label
6
Two developers in one team have checked in code after making individual changes to one single file. Which of the following task will provide a visual display of Conflict between the changes by the individuals.
a. Merging
b. Branching
c. Difference Report
d. Label
7
Repeated Application of the same selection rule will result in either same or different component configurations. Which of the following results in the same component configuration?
a. Partially bound configuration
b. Unbound configuration
c. Configuration template
d. Bound Configuration
8
Identification of configuration item is an essential part of SCM. Which is the immediate benefit of identifying the CI?
a. Producing Product Deltas
b. Analyzing historic information
c. Reporting project status
d. Managing release of multiple versions
9
Label is a useful identification tag. Which one of the following is not true about labels?
a. Label freezes a moment in the development lifecycle
b. All files of a project are labeled with the same string
c. Labelling of files is recommended for updation information automatically
d. Label identifies a project by a more descriptive name than a version
10
A file of version merge combines the file modifications that have independently occurred in two versions into a new version in one of the branches. Which of the following result from a merge
a. Both (b) and (C)
b. Only a reflection of the merge in the version graph
c. Only merging of the content of the two files
d. None of the above
11
_____ is the set of differences between two file versions of a component of two configuration versions of a configuration
a. Difference Report
b. Change Set
c. Version Graph
d. History Graph
12
If you have two sets of changes to a single file and you need to reflect both the changes, the task to be performed is
a. Labeling
b. Rollback
c. Branching
d. Merging
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13
In the composition model, the two step process of composition and selection can be graphically visualized as ____________ graph
a. AND-XOR
b. AND-NOR
c. AND-OR
d. XOR-AND
14
According to all definitions of SCM, the basic activities are:
a. Audit and reporting the status of repositories contents
b. Identifying and organizing Configuration Items
c. Managing and controlling the version of Configuration Items
d. All of the above
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15
Wipro is CMMI Level 5 certified organization. SCM Process area lies at:
a. CMMI Level 1
b. CMMI Level 2
c. CMMI Level 3
d. CMMI Level 5
16
You have newly created a design document for one critical module of your project. You want to place it under version control using some tool. You will perform this activity:
a. Check in
b. Add
c. Any of the above
d. None of the above
17
Which of the following should be considered as Configuration Items for any project:
a. Source Code, Test plan, test Script, Test tools, Test results
b. Project plan, Requirement specification, Class diagrams
c. Design specification, Design tools, Activity diagrams
d. All of the above
18
Domain Consultant has a significant role in:
a. Change Control Board
b. Assisting project management
c. Identification of CI(s)
d. Setting up the SCM Tool
19
Complexity issues that need be considered for SCM tool evaluation are
a. Availability of support for non-ASCII files
b. Availability of manuals
c. Ease of use
d. All of the above
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20
_________ model focuses on improving support for creating configurations, managing their history, and using them as working contexts.
a. Check-in, Check-out
b. Change set
c. Composition
d. Long Transaction
21
A set of patches applied to system releases like mainframe operating systems updates is an example of model.
a. Check-in, Check-out
b. Composition
c. Change set
d. Long Transaction
22
Which of the following is NOT a CI type
a. Design Document
b. Installation Manual
c. Contract document
d. Executable Code
23
Change Control could be triggered by:
a. Requirement changes by the customer
b. Inconsistencies detected during development
c. Defects found during Testing
d. All the above
24
_______represent the system structure and provide a list of components or groups in a hierarchical structure.
a. Composition
b. System Model
c. Check-in, Check-out
d. Change set
25
When multiple checkouts are allowed in the CM model, which of the following is not true?
a. Changes can only be made with write access
b. True person can work simultaneously using the branching and merging tools if possible
c. Only users in the access control list can make changes
d. No changes are possible to a checked out file
26
After reaching a milestone and releasing appropriate artifacts to customer it is advisable to ________the deliverables to identify a baseline.
a. Branch
b. Branch and Label
c. Label
d. None of the above
27
“SCM is the art of identifying, organizing and controlling modifications to the software being built by programming team. It maximizes productivity by minimizing mistakes.” It is SCM’s definition by:
a. IEEE
b. SEI
c. Roger Pressmen
d. Wayne Babich
28
SCM is directly associated with :
a. Managing change and improved quality of software assets
b. Requirement analysis and test planning
c. Design Modeling and Documentations
d. None of the above
29
Which of the SCM related resource is available in Veloci-Q Procedures:
a. SCM Plan
b. SCM Audit
c. Control of Documents
d. SCM Guidelines
30
Which of the following options ensure cost saving due to SCM:
a. Identification of CI(s)
b. Accurate release control
c. Proper resource allocation
d. None of the above
31
To ensure high quality SCM, which of the following recommended is appropriate:
a. Use SCM Tool
b. Make a small and manageable team
c. Maintain the project plan
d. None of the above
32
In a project to identify the baseline artifacts which of the following techniques can be adopted?
a. Merging
b. Keywords
c. Labeling
d. Trigger
33
Which of the following statement is correct with respect to SCM tools:
a. It creates delta of binary files as part of versioning, which in turn saves disk space
b. A label or tag application is saved as meta data in tools database
c. While sharing the files a physical copy is created at respective locations
d. When the check out action is performed on the file, its properties does not change
34
Which of the following are basic feature of SCM tools:
a. Labeling
b. Repository security
c. Web Interface
d. Event Trigger
35
Selection of SCM tool is based on:
a. Identification of CI(s)
b. Development environment and features
c. Configuration status accounting
d. Quality Model requirement
36
SCM defines basically :
a. The organization of the components of a software system so that they fit together in a working order
b. It helps minimize risks and manage change in software development
c. It helps track & prioritize changes to a work item during the course of the SDLC
d. All of the above
37
_____________ ensures that the changes made by one user are available to all the other users of a file:
a. Check-out
b. Branching
c. Check-in
d. Merging
38
_____________ are the benefits of automated SCM.
a. Release Management is better organized
b. Information about all revisions to a file is available
c. Builds can be built and upgraded efficiently
d. All of the above
39
Complexity issues and Management issues are
a. Activities of SCM
b. Features of SCM
c. Tool evaluation parameters of SCM
d. Issues of SCM
40
All audit observations should be recorded in the _______________
a. Change Control Register (CCR)
b. Change Requests (CR)
c. Software Configuration Audit Report (SCAR)
d. Baseline Record (BR)
41
Multiple people working on one work item is
a. Multi-Development
b. Multi-release
c. Concurrent development
d. None of the above
42
__________ provides historic information on the amount of development and maintenance effort during a product’s life cycle
a. Weekly Report
b. Big report
c. Status Accounting
d. None of the above
43
__________ involves analyzing the documentary proof for changes, versions and release information for components of a CI
a. Baselining
b. Accounting
c. Auditing
d. None of the above
44
Which of the following is an SCM tool
a. VSS
b. Clear Case
c. CVS
d. All of the above
45
Management issues that need be considered for SCM tool evaluation are
a. License Cost
b. Availability of upgrades
c. After sales support
d. All of the above
46
Controlling the retrieval of modifiable copies of files from the repository is
a. Concurrency Control
b. SCM
c. Merging
d. Document Retrieval
47
_________ helps us to know how merging works
a. Merging online help
b. Merging manual
c. Merging Semantics
d. None of the above
48
The basic requirements of a SCM system are
a. Planning, versioning, branching, merging, reports
b. Planning, check-in, branching, merging, tools
c. Planning, check-in, check-out, version
d. Planning, control, status accounting, audit
49
The Criteria for selecting the right SCM tool is based upon
a. less Cost , User friendly, Support, features
b. accessibly by many users, cost, user friendly, short learning curve
c. Features of the tool ,development environment, complexity, Cost
d. Look and Feel, must be windows based, less cost
50
The advantages of having naming conventions for a CI are it helps to :
a. Identify the functionality of a CI
b. Identify the project code
c. Identify the Type of a CI
d. All the above
51
_____ are used to automatically update some parts of the header information or comments stored in the source file each time a change or revision is made.
a. Keywords
b. Label
c. Versions
d. Header File
52
Workspace is a concept using in which of the models
a. System Model
b. Composition
c. Long Transaction
d. Change set
53
In a scenario when different developers work in separate stable workspaces and the collection of their changes evolve a system, which concurrency control will you adopt?
a. Concurrency within one workspace
b. Concurrency between workspace requiring co-ordination
c. Concurrent Independent Development
d. Limited access to workspace
54
Component libraries are defined on the basis of ________
a. Both (b) and (C)
b. Access Control
c. Content
d. None of the above
55
Which one of the following is a good alternative to Branching and merging
a. Workspace
b. Concurrent development
c. Sharing
d. None of the above
56
Older versions of a specific workproduct can be easily retrieved by using_____________feature in SCM system
a. Rollback
b. Merging
c. Baseline
d. Branching
57
SCM control enables team to
a. Approve
b. Review, Approve and Incorporate Changes
c. Review
d. Incorporate changes
58
Any proposals for improvement in SCM process defined in veloci-Q can be raised using
a. Audits
b. TedWeb Request
c. PIP
d. None of the above
59
A feature has been incorrectly implemented by a programmer. Which feature of SCM tool can be used to track the programmer and the version from which it is implemented ?
a. Merging
b. Branching
c. Rollback
d. History
60
Sharing Files is a good alternative as compared to
a. Branching
b. Merging
c. A & B
d. None of the above
61
In this course SCM stands for :
a. Supply Chain Management
b. Software Change Management
c. Software Configuration Management
d. System Crossover Management
62
Which of the following is not a source of change:
a. Concurrent Development
b. Multiple Releases
c. SCM Tool
d. Product Family
63
Change Control Register and Software Configuration Audit Reports are kept within Veloci-Q section:
a. Templates
b. Policies
c. Procedures
d. Checklist
64
Any SCM process related suggestion can be proposed in Veloci-Q using:
a. Release Review Report
b. Process Improvement Proposal
c. Project Plan
d. Release Note
65
While working with a SCM tool to edit an existing code file, you follow this sequence of activities:
a. Check out, make modification on server side and check in
b. Check in, make modification on your local copy and check out
c. Check out, make modification on your local copy and check in
d. Check in, make modification on server side and check out
66
Defining rights of individuals for accessing the project repository is defined at which of the following stage of SCM:
a. SCM Audit
b. SCM Planning
c. SCM Control
d. SCM status accounting
67
An aggregation of CI(s) that has been formally reviewed and agreed upon and taken into control at single point in time can be defined by……………. and using and SCM tool it is identified by ……………. (Fill in the blank from respective comma separated words)
a. Project, Pinning
b. Keyword, Pinning
c. Baseline, Label
d. Branch, Trigger
68
In check-in, check-out model, version branching and merging are represented by a structure known as
a. Structure Chart
b. Version Graph
c. History Graph
d. None of the above
69
Version branching is used for
a. Experimental development
b. Concurrent changes
c. Independent path of development
d. All of the above
70
__________ model focuses on supporting the evolution of systems as a series of atomic changes, and on co-ordinating the change of systems.
a. Composition
b. Change set
c. Check-in, Check-out
d. Long Transaction
71
Software Configuration management is a CMMi Level _____ process area
a. 3
b. 4
c. 2
d. 5
72
______ can help to reverse back to the previous baseline at any point of SDLC
a. Labelling
b. Merging
c. Baselining
d. None of the above
73
Your project is in the User Acceptance Testing phase and the customer comes back with a new requirement. What is correct sequence of activities in handling this change request:
a. PM approves the Change, Change is implemented,CR is recorded in the CCR,CCB approves the recorded CR.
b. Log the CR in the CCR, The CR is taken up by the CCB for impact analysis, PM approves the change, Change is implemented
c. CCB approves the Change, PM does Impact analysis, Change is implemented, CR is recorded in the CCR
d. Change is recorded in the CCR, Impact analysis is done by the CCB, Change is approved by the CCB, Change is implemented
74
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
a. A workspace can originate from a preserved configuration of another workspace
b. A workspace can originate from a repository
c. A workspace originates from a bound configuration in the repository
d. Maintaining a file system as work area is more space efficient than using a workspace
75
SCM does not help in meeting which of the following ISO requirement
a. Identification and Traceability
b. Control of records
c. Design and Development outputs
d. Control of Design and development Changes
76
Before checking in the changes to a file it is advisable to use ______ to check the changes made to a particular file and if changes are made to the latest version of the file.
a. Audit Report
b. Configuration report
c. Difference Report
d. All of the above
77
Branching is a technique generally used for
a. Build customized versions of project for different clients
b. Merging two versions of the same file
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above
78
If a SCM break downs, which of the following is of the most help:
a. The last complete backup of SCM repository
b. Team coordination & proper project management in crisis
c. Individual developer’s knowledge and understanding of the system developed so far
d. Running release in production
79
Management in SCM is concerned with identification and guidance of Configuration Items to final assembly. Which of the following activity is not involved in it:
a. Baselining CI(s)
b. Identification of CI(s)
c. Analysis of historic Information
d. Performing deployment
80
SCM tools maintain the history of artifacts. What is the primary information maintained within history?
a. Audit status of version
b. Name and versions of artifacts
c. Label associated with versions
d. A & C
81
Using any SCM tool you can see:
a. Difference between two versions of binary files
b. Difference between two versions of files irrespective of their file types
c. Difference between two versions of ASCII files
d. None of the above
82
In a parallel maintenance and enhancement project scenario if one of the bug fixes from maintenance project line is also need to be fixed for the enhancement project line then which of the following option is the most optimum?
a. Suggesting developer of enhancement line to perform the bug fix changes
b. Performing merge from identified baseline of maintenance bug fix to enhancement line
c. Setting up trigger for automatic bug fix notification
d. Inform testing team about the bug fix in enhancement line
83
To ensure change control, Veloci-Q procedures says:
a. The request of change should be recorded in Change Control Register
b. Impact should be determined and client’s agreement should be received for payment against change incorporation
c. Change should be tracked till it is PM approves it
d. Risk assessment should be done in the end
84
Configuration Status Accounting provides reports for senior management to access the health of project at any given point in time. Which of the following report is derived from Configuration Status Accounting:
a. System Performance Report
b. SCM Tool Evaluation Report
c. Traceability metrics Report
d. Bug fix implementation Report
85
Control in SCM provides project personnel with the ability to :
a. Review
b. Approve
c. Incorporate changes
d. All of the above
86
_____________ model focuses on versioning of product components
a. Merging
b. Labeling
c. Check-in / Check-out
d. Branching
87
_____________ is the process of combining two sets of changes to a file or two files to create a new version or combined file
a. Merging
b. Branching
c. Labeling
d. Check-out
88
Status Accounting provides
a. Status of change request and defect reports
b. Version status of various configuration items (CIs)
c. Status of configuration items in various project baselines
d. All of the above
89
__________ process help to control different versions of the product.
a. SCM
b. Change request
c. Concurrent development
d. All of the above
90
Which of the following is a requirement of ISO 9001
a. Control of documents
b. Identification and traceability
c. Control of non-conforming product
d. All of the above
91
CMMi assessments will look to see if a mechanism is used to control
a. Changes in requirements & design
b. Changes in code
c. Configuration management of the software tools used in the development process
d. All of the above
92
CMMi level 2 is described as
a. Initial
b. Repeatable
c. Optimized
d. Evolving
93
SCM related procedures in Veloci-Q are
a. Configuration Management
b. Control of documents
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
94
SCM related templates in Veloci-Q are
a. Baseline Record (BR)
b. Change Control Register (CCR)
c. Software Configuration Audit Report (SCAR)
d. All the above
95
SCM benefits an organization in the areas;
a. Control, Management, control, quality
b. Document control
c. Tools usage
d. None of the above
96
Standardized, measurable process for change management are inherent of
a. SCM processes
b. SCM tools
c. SCM plan
d. None of the above
97
Extracting CI from repository for browsing, editing or printing is
a. Merging
b. Check-in
c. Sharing
d. Check-out
98
A report that shows the differences between two or more files or versions of a file are
a. Audit report
b. Difference report
c. Configuration report
d. None of the above
99
_________ is the process of using one base file for two or more parallel activities like customization
a. Check-in
b. Merging
c. Branching
d. Check-out
100
Two aspects of merging are
a. Check-in and check-out
b. Merging ascii file and merging non-ascii files
c. Merging of actual content; reflecting the merge in version history
d. None of the above
101
In SCM context, a work item or deliverable such as code, documents or data is a
a. Data Item
b. Configuration Item
c. Building Block
d. None of the above
102
Common planning level activities are
a. Approach for frequency and mode of version control
b. Branching Approach
c. Merging Approach
d. All of the above
103
__________ means proposed changes to a CI are incorporated into the software configuration after review and approval
a. SCM
b. Change Control
c. Baselining
d. None of the above
104
Some of the parameters considered for change evaluation are
a. Impact on existing system
b. Complexity of Change
c. Cost
d. All of the above
105
Which of the following needs to be taken into consideration for SCM tool selection
a. OS Support
b. Development Environment
c. Hardware Requirements
d. All of the above
1
You are a Project Engineer who has just joined Wipro. You want to know all your responsibilities as defined by veloci-Q for your role. Where would you go?
a. Treasure House
b. Navigator
c. PDB
d. Guidelines
2
Which phases of SDLC can be sources for errors?
a. RS, Design, CUT & IT
b. RS, Design, CUT, IT, ST & AT
c. RS, Design, CUT, IT & ST
d. RS, Design & CUT
3
The data and information of all previously executed projects are in the:
a. PIP DB
b. Navigator
c. Project data bank
d. Treasure house
4
As per veloci-Q, in a project following V process model – the activity to define acceptance Test Plan is recommended as part of
a. Project Planning phase
b. RS phase
c. Design Phase
d. Acceptance Testing Phase
5
Which of the following is not a management review mechanism, where senior management reviews performance of projects/ organization with respect to Quality?
a. PMR
b. PIP board meeting
c. MRM
d. QIC
6
The philosophy of “say what you do, do what you say” belongs to
a. BS7799
b. The Project Manager
c. CMMI
d. ISO
7
Which of these are used to identify the Risks in the project?
a. Past project data
b. Risk Identification checklist
c. Stake holder inputs
d. All of the above
8
Effort Deviation means
a. PM’s effort allocated to the Team member
b. Projected effort and planned effort
c. Actually consumed effort only
d. Variation between planned effort and actual effort+effort to go
9
What is the monthly mechanism to record and track metrics of the project?
a. Work Plans
b. PMR
c. PDMR
d. ASR
10
ISO stands for
a. International Organization for Standardization
b. International Systems Organization
c. International Systems Orientation
d. International Systems for Organization
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11
Process improvements can be suggested by anyone in Wipro
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
12
Quality is defined as
a. Use of checklists and templates
b. Ability of the product to meet stated or implicit needs of customers
c. Set of process and procedures
d. All of the above
13
An assessment consists of
a. Interview of customers
b. Questionnaire, Documents review and Interviews
c. Review of quality System
d. All of the above
14
Triggers for root cause analysis are documented in
a. Quality Plan
b. Master list of documents
c. Project Dashboard
d. Project Plan
15
At organizational level, metrics are reviewed by management in
a. Quality Improvement Council
b. Management Review Meeting
c. Quality Review Meeting
d. All of the above
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16
Modification of the approved process to suit the requirements of a project are documented in
a. Veloci-Q
b. Project Plan
c. Master List of Process
d. None of the above
17
Planned and systematic activities performed to provide adequate confidence that an item/product conforms to requirements is
a. Regression Testing
b. Unit Testing
c. Quality Assurance
d. None of the above
18
Wipro’s quality policy is
a. Meet the needs and expectations of customers
b. Achieve customer satisfaction by providing defect free products and services on time.
c. Attain CMMi Level 5 compliance
d. None of the above
19
Group that focus on the tools used by projects and the impact of using tools is
a. SQA
b. SEPG
c. Tools group
d. All of the above
20
Configuration audits are verification mechanisms used to ensure that deliverables are:
a. On schedule
b. Defect free
c. Consistent with requirements
d. None of the above
21
Which of this is not the intended use of Metrics?
a. To take appropriate decisions based on measured values
b. To monitor individual performance
c. To monitor the project performance
d. To revise plans
22
The effectiveness of the Quality Management System is continuously improved through
a. Quality group recruitments
b. Audit results, corrective and preventive actions, CSATs, Management Review
c. Sales reports, Balance sheets, Company audit reports
d. Individual Performance appraisals
23
Quality Policy
a. Is prepared for the Mission Quality Group
b. Is used to rate the Mission Quality Group performance every year
c. Should not be shown to the customer as it is very confidential
d. States a clear commitment to quality and consistent with organization goals
24
Prototype helps in validating
a. Design
b. Technology
c. Requirements
d. Technical skills
25
Organizational learning enters Veloci-Q through
a. Queries and PIP
b. Project Performance Analysis
c. Audit findings
d. All of the above
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26
______is an initiative that involves measuring and analyzing business processes.
a. Six Sigma
b. Root Cause Analysis
c. Pugh Matrix
d. None of the above
27
In a six sigma project, the problem owner is
a. Black Belt
b. White Belt
c. DM
d. Green Belt
28
A list of project documents, quality records and customer supplied documents are recorded in
a. Master List of Documents
b. Project Folder
c. Document Bank
d. None of the above
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29
Schedule deviation, effort deviation, field error rate are some of the metrics captured for
a. Service projects
b. Development projects
c. Maintenance projects
d. All of the above
30
Difference between actual end date and planned end date expressed as a % of planned duration is
a. Requirements volatility
b. Schedule volatility
c. Schedule deviation
d. None of the above
31
Ratio of product size to total project effort is
a. Effort Deviation
b. Overall Productivity
c. CUT productivity
d. None of the above
32
Acceptance criteria should be part of Requirement Specification (RS) document
a. FALSE
b. Can be part of RS if provided by customer
c. TRUE
d. None of the above
33
__________are requests to make changes to baselined work products.
a. Requirements
b. Maintenance Request (MR)
c. Change Request (CR)
d. None of the above
34
Wipro’s quality system is known as
a. K-net
b. WiqTree
c. Veloci-Q
d. Project Data Bank
35
__________are the industry standards and benchmarks for quality.
a. ChannelW
b. Quality Models
c. Six Sigma
d. Veloci-Q
36
In Veloci-Q, intentions and directions for quality initiative are documented in
a. Policies section
b. Procedure section
c. Guidelines section
d. All of the above
37
Process artifacts that help to perform project activities in a standard manner are
a. Checklists and Templates
b. Policies
c. Procedures
d. All of the above
38
The extent to which a specific process is defined, managed, measured and controlled within an organization is known as
a. Procedures Capacity
b. Software Process Maturity
c. Measurememt Maturity
d. All of the above
39
The two representations in the CMMI Framework are:
a. Integrated and Continuous
b. Integrated and Staged
c. Staged and Continuous
d. None of the Above
40
____________ documents all change requests to baselined items.
a. Change Register
b. Configuration Register
c. Change Control Register
d. Change Request Register
41
_________is used to document the features/functionality to be tested, test strategy and testing methods to be used.
a. Test Form
b. Test Plan
c. Test development
d. Test Design
42
Project monitoring reviews are conducted to
a. Review project progress
b. Understand project requirements
c. Monitor requirements volatility
d. All of the above
43
A Process basically defines :
a. A new procedure to be implemented
b. Who is doing what when and how to reach a specific goal
c. A running Program
d. All of the above
44
The International Standard for Quality Assurance – ISO 9001 emphasizes on :
a. Critical Component quality
b. Product Quality
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Process Quality
45
Which Lifecycle model emphasizes preparation of plans for validation during the early Life Cycle stages itself?
a. Rational Unified Process Model
b. Maintenance model
c. 2I Process Model
d. V-Process Model
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46
_______ is a monthly mechanism to track metric trends, exceptions of metrics and ensure Process Improvements in the Business Unit
a. QICs
b. PIP Board meetings
c. Quality meet
d. Look Ahead Meetings
47
Organisation’s Customer Focus should meet the needs and expectations of:
a. Suppliers and partners
b. The customers and end users
c. People in the Organisation
d. All of the above
48
__________________ is a mechanism of maintaining the mapping between requirements and products resulting from the requirements.
a. Design document
b. Requirements Traceability
c. Test cases
d. Functional design
49
Voice Of Customer (VOC) can be used to
a. Select requirements
b. Requirements traceability
c. Prioritize customer requirements
d. Analyze customer requirements
50
The CMMI level 5 stage is termed as a :
a. Iterative stage
b. Repeatable stage
c. Optimizing stage
d. Defined stage
51
Project Performance Analysis (PPA) is an exercise which examines :
a. Lessons learnt and best practices
b. Conformance of requirements
c. Individual performance
d. Process Improvement Proposals
52
A NCR (Non Conformance Report) signifies :
a. Deviation from a stated process
b. Failure of ISO certification
c. Observation
d. Deviation of coding standard
53
The Assessment methodology defined by SEI for the CMMI model is
a. PVPD
b. CAQ
c. CBAIPI
d. SCAMPI
54
How many Process Areas are there in CMMI:
a. 24
b. 28
c. 23
d. 18
55
What is the 3rd level in CMMI called?
a. Optimized
b. Controlled
c. Managed
d. Defined
56
In the execution of maintenance projects each trigger from the customer is recorded in a:
a. Change Request
b. MR
c. PMR
d. Change control Register
57
In CMMI the Level 2 stage is described as
a. Optimized
b. defined
c. Managed
d. Repeatable
58
Project monitoring reviews are conducted :
a. On a monthly basis
b. By the SQA Team periodically
c. Whenever we have a client release
d. In the external audit meeting
59
Which of these is not true regarding an Observation recorded during an audit
a. This is a suggestion for improvement
b. This is a deviation from the stated process
c. This does not need closure
d. It could be a potential for non-conformance in future
60
The different categories of Lifecycle models are
a. V-process model, 2i, RUP
b. iPAT, veloci-Q, Six Sigma
c. Development, maintenance, service, testing etc
d. All of the above
61
In order to achieve customer satsifaction, the team should
a. Elicit parameters that are critical to quality from customers
b. Collect data and metrics
c. Track project performance
d. All of the above
62
The mechanism for obtaining customer feedback at project closure as per veloci-Q is:
a. Call the customer and obtain feedback
b. Create a feedback form and send it
c. Use template in veloci-Q as a feedback form, tailor the feedback form by including project specific questions
d. An acceptance mail from the customer post project completion will suffice
63
Customer Satisfaction survey is conducted to
a. Obtain feedback on delivery by Wipro
b. Obtain feedback on the engagement with Wipro
c. A and B
d. None of the above
64
ISO, CMM, Six Sigma are_______
a. Coding Standards
b. Quality models
c. Tools
d. Programming Languages
65
The process followed in the software development project should be:
a. Processes as described in velociQ.
b. Client specified processes
c. Tailored ODC specific processes
d. All of the above
66
Which of this is a planned mechanism for Defect Prevention?
a. Look Ahead Meetings
b. Customer feedback
c. PDMR and PMR reviews
d. All of the above
67
Deviations from the stated processes that are identified during the audit are recorded as
a. Process Improvement Proposal
b. Creation of Work Plans
c. Non-Conformances
d. Process Improvement and Process Development
68
veloci-Q has a ____ -tier architecture
a. Multi-dimensional
b. 3
c. 2
d. 4
69
A “Surveillance audit “is conducted by:
a. SQA and SEPG
b. Delivery Manager
c. Project Managers coordinated by SEPG
d. External certification agency
70
Wipro Technologies is assessed as a CMMI _____Organization
a. 4
b. 5
c. It is assessed at CMM only, but no level of CMMi
d. 3
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71
Release note is prepared :
a. To explain the project closure norms
b. Prior to the release , contains the list of software items
c. After the final test case is executed
d. On acceptance of the release
72
A project can be initiated based on
a. DM’s preference to develop his favorite application
b. The contract signed by the customer
c. DM wanting his team to understand a technology
d. All of the above
73
Which of the following would help us in deriving the projects specific process from the organization’s standard process?
a. Process guidelines
b. Life Cycle models
c. Project Procedures
d. Tailoring Guidelines
74
We take customer complaint seriously
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
75
Corrective and Preventive Action Plan should be drawn for:
a. Customer feedback ratings
b. Customer complaints received
c. Actions from Customer Satisfaction surveys
d. All of the above
76
The Six Sigma technique/tool recommended for use of Risk Analysis is
a. FMEA
b. Pugh Matrix
c. Voice of Customer
d. RCA
77
Which metric is used for tracking change in requirements?
a. Requirements Volatility
b. CRs Index
c. Requirements Change Index
d. None of the above
78
Purpose of Project performance report is to
a. Compute average time it takes for screens to load
b. Restart the project again at a future date
c. Provide the project team appropriate reward
d. Record the learning’s from the project for future reference
79
It is mandatory to take corrective and preventive actions for
a. Observations
b. Customer complaints
c. Non-conformances
d. Both (b) and (c )
80
____is a cluster of related practices that are performed collectively to achieve a set of objectives.
a. Channel W
b. Quality System
c. Process Area
d. None of the above
81
In CMMi context ____is a collaborative effort to find strengths and improvement areas.
a. Appraisal
b. Audit
c. Assessment
d. Observation
82
DPMO stands for_____
a. Defects per million opportunities
b. Derivations per million opportunities
c. Defects per million occasions
d. All of the above
83
DSSS, DMAIC and TQSS are six sigma methodologies used for
a. Defect Reduction
b. Reduction of cycle time
c. Cost calculations
d. None of the above
84
_____is a repository of data and learning from closed projects.
a. Six Sigma
b. Project Data Bank
c. Veloci-Q
d. None of the above
85
_____is used for tracking and monitoring risks.
a. Risk Management plan
b. Risk Identification checklist
c. Project plan
d. None of the above
86
The CMMi model was developed by
a. Motorola
b. Software Engineering Institute
c. Wipro
d. None of the above
87
Work items that would undergo changes during product life cycle are known as
a. Configuration Items
b. Change Items
c. Product Items
d. None of the above
88
Practitioners working on projects can suggest process improvements through a
a. Process Improvement Proposal
b. Change Request
c. Email/Phone
d. All of the above
89
Bureau of India Standards emphasizes on
a. Project Quality
b. Process Quality
c. Quality Models
d. Product Quality
90
In a project context, who needs to do what is documented in
a. Guidelines section
b. Policies section
c. Procedure section
d. All of the above
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91
The philosophy of ISO is based on the key principles like:
a. Act upon the findings
b. Say what you do, do what you say
c. Record what you did and check the results
d. All of the above
92
__________ matrix is an aid to trace requirements across different phases of development.
a. Change request
b. Requirements
c. Traceability
d. All of the above
93
________ is defined as any adverse event that is likely to occur.
a. Disaster recovery
b. Change request
c. Risk
d. Maintenance request
94
The process model applicable to projects that involve development of new products or major enhancements to existing products is
a. Iterative process model
b. V-process model
c. Waterfall process model
d. None of the above.
95
The role of a person who facilitates the six sigma team project to align with the methodology is:
a. Green Belt
b. Champion
c. Yellow Belt
d. Black Belt
96
______________ in the Configuration Management (CM) process represents the snapshot of a set of deliverables at a given point in time.
a. Configuration Audits
b. Baselines
c. Configuration Items
d. CCB
97
In Wipro, a quality group is
a. Part of project team
b. Part of a vertical
c. Separate group headed by Chief Quality Officer
d. None of the above
98
CMMi model outlines _____levels of maturity.
a. 3
b. 5
c. 6
d. 8
99
Statistical term that describes the amount of variation in data
a. Standard Deviation
b. Six Sigma
c. Normal Distribution
d. Median
100
The quality group responsible for process definition, metrics analysis and quality assurance activities at vertical/group vertical level is
a. Tools Group
b. SQA
c. SEPG
d. None of the above
101
Modification of the approved process to suit the requirements of a project is known as
a. Process Tailoring
b. Process Approval
c. Process Deviation
d. None of the above
102
_________ serves as an important verification activity to ensure the completeness of testing in order to ensure product quality.
a. Test Audit
b. Integration Testing
c. Unit Testing
d. System testing
103
Achieving the goal of Six Sigma means your product will be defect free to an extent of:
a. 13.5 defects per million opportunities
b. 4.3 defects per million opportunities
c. 3.4 defects per million opportunities
d. 4.4 defects per million opportunities
104
_______ is a process of examining whether the process conforms to the defined quality system:
a. Review
b. Audit
c. Assessment
d. Testing
105
Maintenance Process Model is best suited for
a. Minor functional enhancements or performance improvement of the existing software
b. Problem resolution on existing software products
c. Interface modification due to changes in hardware or software environment
d. All of the above
106
You are a Project Engineer who has just joined Wipro. You want to know best practices from projects executed in Wipro. Where would you go?
a. Treasure House
b. Navigator
c. PDB
d. Guidelines
107
Which feature of velociQ helps in getting Activity Based views?
a. PIP DB
b. Navigator
c. Project data bank
d. Treasure house
108
Which of the following is review mechanism, where senior management reviews performance of projects with respect to Quality?
a. PMR
b. MRM
c. QIC
d. All of the above
109
Which of the following provides details on metrics performance for project :
a. Execution Process Plan
b. PDMR
c. Project Vision
d. Resource Plan
110
_____is the monthly mechanism to record and track metrics of the projects
a. Work Plans
b. PMR
c. PDMR
d. ASR
111
Process improvements cannot be suggested by anyone in Wipro
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
112
At vertical level, metrics are reviewed by management in
a. Quality Improvement Council
b. Management Review Meeting
c. Quality Review Meeting
d. All of the above
113
Group that works on the definition of the procedures and guidelines used by projects is
a. SQA
b. SEPG
c. Tools group
d. All of the above
114
Testing helps in validating__________
a. Design
b. Technology
c. Requirements
d. Technical skills
115
New process enters velociQ through
a. Queries and PIP
b. Project Performance Analysis
c. Audit findings
d. All of the above
116
In a six sigma project, the mentor / facilitator is a __________
a. Black Belt
b. White Belt
c. DM
d. Green Belt
117
Difference between actual effort and planned effort expressed as a % of planned effort is
a. Requirements volatility
b. Schedule volatility
c. Effort deviation
d. None of the above
118
Ratio of product size to effort in coding and unit testing phase is
a. Effort Deviation
b. Overall Productivity
c. CUT productivity
d. None of the above
119
Which model is not used for new product development?
a. V-Process model
b. Iterative Process model
c. Production Support process model
d. None of the above
120
In Veloci-Q, three tier structures consist of which section?
a. Policies section
b. Procedure section
c. Guidelines section
d. All of the above
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121
Checklists & templates are process artifacts that help to perform project activities in a standard manner
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Checklist & template are not mandatory
d. Checklist & template are not process artifacts
122
Change Control Register documents all change requests to baselined items
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
123
_________ is a technique used for capturing and analyzing customer requirements.
a. Quality Function Deployment (QFD)
b. Pugh matrix
c. Voice Of Customer (VOC)
d. None of the above
124
Which of the following can be used to validate customer requirements
a. LOC
b. Testing
c. Function points
d. Voice Of Customer (VOC)
125
What is the 5th level in CMMI called?
a. Optimized
b. Controlled
c. Managed
d. Defined
126
In CMMI Level 4 stage is described as?
a. Optimized
b. Defined
c. Managed
d. Repeatable
127
The different categories of development Lifecycle models are
a. V-process model, 2i, RUP
b. iPAT, veloci-Q, Six Sigma
c. Development, maintenance, service, testing etc
d. None of the above
128
Who is responsible for preparing the estimate?
a. Business Development Manager
b. Presales staff
c. Delivery Manager
d. Project Manager
129
Which of this is planned mechanism for progress reviews?
a. Look Ahead Meetings
b. Customer feedback
c. PDMR and PMR reviews
d. All of the above
130
Choose the right one: Process model suitable for development project.
a. Waterfall Development model
b. Iterative model
c. V-Process model
d. All of the above
131
The set of actions to be taken when the probable risks occur ; are documented as a part of
a. Defect Prevention Report
b. Risk Tracker
c. Mitigation Plan
d. Contingency plan
132
The Six Sigma technique/tool recommended for Analyzing Requirements is
a. FMEA
b. Pugh Matrix
c. Voice of Customer
d. RCA
133
DMAIC stands for
a. Do, Measure , Add, Improve, Control
b. Define, Measure , Add, Improve, Control
c. Define, Measure , Analyze, Improve, Control
d. Define, Measure , Add, Improve, Check
134
In project context what is to be done how is documented in
a. Guidelines section
b. Policies section
c. Procedure section
d. All of the above
135
__________ is a method to track changes in requirements across different phases of development.
a. Change request
b. Requirements
c. Traceability
d. All of the above
136
The managed services framework in Wipro Technologies is governed by __________ standard.
a. ISO 9001
b. ISO 14001
c. ISO 20000
d. None of the above
137
Which of the following is not a valid phase of managed services life cycle in Wipro Technologies?
a. Design
b. Transition
c. Due Diligence
d. Reverse Transition
138
OLA in Managed Services stands for
a. Operational Level Contract
b. Operational Level Agreement
c. opportunity Lost Analysis
d. None of the Above
139
Outcome based agreements typically include
a. SLA
b. OLA
c. UC
d. All of the Above
140
Managed Services engagements typically
a. Don’t need any governance
b. Are governed by a contract as desired by the customer
c. Are governed by outcome based agreement
d. None of the Above
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